Which of the following statements is incorrec | vedclass

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Question

(A) According to Werner's coordination theory: $1$. Primary valency corresponds to the oxidation state of the metal ion and is satisfied by anions. $2

Vedclass · Accepted Answer

In $K_3[Fe(CN)_6]$,the ligand satisfies only the secondary valency of the ferric ion.

Vedclass · Answer

(A) According to Werner's coordination theory: $1$. Primary valency corresponds to the oxidation state of the metal ion and is satisfied by anions. $2$. Secondary valency corresponds to the coordination number and is satisfied by ligands. In $K_3[Fe(CN)_6]$,the $Fe^{3+}$ ion has an oxidation state of $+3$ (primary valency) and a coordination number of $6$ (secondary valency). The $CN^-$ ions act as ligands,satisfying both the primary valency (by balancing the charge) and the secondary valency (by coordinating to the metal). Statement $A$ claims the ligand satisfies *only* the secondary valency,which is incorrect because $CN^-$ ions also satisfy the primary valency of the $Fe^{3+}$ ion.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

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