Which of the following is logically equivalen | vedclass

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(D) We know that the implication $p \rightarrow q$ is equivalent to $\sim p \vee q$.Applying this to the expression $\sim (p \rightarrow \sim q)$:$\si

Vedclass · Accepted Answer

$\sim (p \rightarrow \sim q)$

Vedclass · Answer

(D) We know that the implication $p \rightarrow q$ is equivalent to $\sim p \vee q$.Applying this to the expression $\sim (p \rightarrow \sim q)$:$\sim (p \rightarrow \sim q) \equiv \sim (\sim p \vee \sim q)$.Using De Morgan's Law,$\sim (\sim p \vee \sim q) \equiv (\sim \sim p \wedge \sim \sim q) \equiv (p \wedge q)$.Therefore,the expression $\sim (p \rightarrow \sim q)$ is logically equivalent to $(p \wedge q)$.

Which of the following is logically equivalent to $(p \wedge q)$?

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