A sells an article to B at a gain of 20 %,B s | vedclass

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(C) Let the cost price $(C.P.)$ for $A$ be $₹ x$.According to the problem,the successive gains are $20 \%$,$10 \%$,and $12 \frac{1}{2} \%$ (which is $

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$20$

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(C) Let the cost price $(C.P.)$ for $A$ be $₹ x$.According to the problem,the successive gains are $20 \%$,$10 \%$,and $12 \frac{1}{2} \%$ (which is $12.5 \%$ or $\frac{25}{2} \%$).The selling price for $A$ is $x 	imes (1 + \frac{20}{100}) = x 	imes \frac{120}{100}$.The selling price for $B$ is $(x 	imes \frac{120}{100}) 	imes (1 + \frac{10}{100}) = x 	imes \frac{120}{100} 	imes \frac{110}{100}$.The selling price for $C$ (which is the price $D$ pays) is $(x 	imes \frac{120}{100} 	imes \frac{110}{100}) 	imes (1 + \frac{12.5}{100}) = x 	imes \frac{120}{100} 	imes \frac{110}{100} 	imes \frac{112.5}{100}$.Given that $D$ pays $₹ 29.70$,we have:$x 	imes \frac{120}{100} 	imes \frac{110}{100} 	imes \frac{112.5}{100} = 29.70$$x 	imes \frac{6}{5} 	imes \frac{11}{10} 	imes \frac{9}{8} = 29.70$$x 	imes \frac{594}{400} = 29.70$$x = \frac{29.70 	imes 400}{594} = \frac{11880}{594} = 20$.Thus,$A$ purchased the article for $₹ 20$.

$A$ sells an article to $B$ at a gain of $20 \%$,$B$ sells it to $C$ at a gain of $10 \%$,and $C$ sells it to $D$ at a gain of $12 \frac{1}{2} \%$. If $D$ pays $₹ 29.70$,then $A$ purchased the article for (in $₹$):

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