A sells an article to B making a profit of fr | vedclass

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(B) Let the cost price $(C.P.)$ of the article for $A$ be $₹ x$.$A$ sells it to $B$ at a profit of $\frac{1}{5}$ of his outlay,so the selling price fo

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$500$

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(B) Let the cost price $(C.P.)$ of the article for $A$ be $₹ x$.$A$ sells it to $B$ at a profit of $\frac{1}{5}$ of his outlay,so the selling price for $A$ (which is the $C.P.$ for $B$) is $x 	imes (1 + \frac{1}{5}) = x 	imes \frac{6}{5}$.$B$ sells it to $C$ at a gain of $20\%$,so the selling price for $B$ (which is the $C.P.$ for $C$) is $(x 	imes \frac{6}{5}) 	imes (1 + \frac{20}{100}) = x 	imes \frac{6}{5} 	imes \frac{6}{5} = x 	imes \frac{36}{25}$.$C$ sells it for $₹ 600$ and incurs a loss of $\frac{1}{6}$ of his outlay. Thus,the selling price for $C$ is $(C.P. 	ext{ of } C) 	imes (1 - \frac{1}{6}) = 600$.Substituting the $C.P.$ of $C$:$(x 	imes \frac{36}{25}) 	imes \frac{5}{6} = 600$$x 	imes \frac{6}{5} = 600$$x = 600 	imes \frac{5}{6} = 500$.Therefore,the cost price of $A$ is $₹ 500$.

$A$ sells an article to $B$ making a profit of $\frac{1}{5}$ of his outlay. $B$ sells it to $C$,gaining $20\%$. If $C$ sells it for $₹ 600$ and incurs a loss of $\frac{1}{6}$ of his outlay,the cost price of $A$ is (in $₹$):

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