Let $D = \mathbb{R} - \{0, 1\}$ and $f: D \rightarrow D$,$g: D \rightarrow D$,and $h: D \rightarrow D$ be three functions defined by $f(x) = \frac{1}{x}$,$g(x) = 1 - x$,and $h(x) = \frac{1}{1 - x}$. If $j: D \rightarrow D$ is such that $(g \circ j \circ f)(x) = f(x)$ for all $x \in D$,then which one of the following is $j(x)$?
- A$(f \circ g)(x)$
- B$f(x)$
- C$g(x)$
- D$(g \circ h)(x)$
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