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(D) We know the relation between magnetic induction $B$,magnetic field intensity $H$,and permeability $\mu$ as $B = \mu H$.Since $\mu = \mu_r \mu_0$,w

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$\frac{10^5}{6 \pi}$

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(D) We know the relation between magnetic induction $B$,magnetic field intensity $H$,and permeability $\mu$ as $B = \mu H$.Since $\mu = \mu_r \mu_0$,where $\mu_r$ is the relative permeability and $\mu_0$ is the permeability of free space,we have $B = \mu_r \mu_0 H$.Rearranging for $\mu_r$,we get $\mu_r = \frac{B}{\mu_0 H}$.Given $B = 1 \ Wb \ m^{-2}$,$H = 150 \ A \ m^{-1}$,and $\mu_0 = 4 \pi 	imes 10^{-7} \ H \ m^{-1}$.Substituting these values:$\mu_r = \frac{1}{(4 \pi 	imes 10^{-7}) 	imes 150} = \frac{1}{600 \pi 	imes 10^{-7}} = \frac{10^7}{600 \pi} = \frac{10^5}{6 \pi}$.

The magnetic induction and the intensity of the magnetic field inside an iron core of an electromagnet are $1 \ Wb \ m^{-2}$ and $150 \ A \ m^{-1}$,respectively. The relative permeability of iron is $\left(\mu_0 = 4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \ H \ m^{-1}\right)$.

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