The statement $(p$ $\Rightarrow q) \vee (p$ $\Rightarrow r)$ is $NOT$ equivalent to:

  • A
    $(p \wedge (\sim r)) \Rightarrow q$
  • B
    $(\sim q) \Rightarrow ((\sim r) \vee p)$
  • C
    $p \Rightarrow (q \vee r)$
  • D
    $(p \wedge (\sim q)) \Rightarrow r$

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