Let $f(x) = ax + b$ and $g(x) = cx + d$,where $a \ne 0$ and $c \ne 0$. Assume $a = 1$ and $b = 2$. If $(fog)(x) = (gof)(x)$ for all $x$,what can you say about $c$ and $d$?

  • A
    $c$ and $d$ are both arbitrary
  • B
    $c = 1$,$d$ is arbitrary
  • C
    $c$ is arbitrary,$d = 1$
  • D
    $c = 1$,$d = 1$

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