If for some $p, q, r \in \mathbb{R}$,not all have the same sign,and one of the roots of the equation $(p^{2}+q^{2})x^{2}-2q(p+r)x + q^{2}+r^{2}=0$ is also a root of the equation $x^{2}+2x-8=0$,then $\frac{q^{2}+r^{2}}{p^{2}}$ is equal to-

  • A
    $271$
  • B
    $273$
  • C
    $274$
  • D
    $272$

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