The inverse of $p$ $\rightarrow (q$ $\rightarrow r)$ is logically equivalent to

  • A
    $p$ $\rightarrow (q$ $\rightarrow r)$
  • B
    $(q$ $\rightarrow r)$ $\rightarrow \sim p$
  • C
    $(p \vee q) \rightarrow r$
  • D
    $(q$ $\rightarrow r)$ $\rightarrow p$

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Similar Questions

Check whether the following pair of statements are negation of each other. Give reasons for your answer.
$I$: There exists real numbers $x$ and $y$ for which $x+y=y+x.$
$II$: For all real numbers $x$ and $y$,$x+y \neq y+x.$

Write the negation of the following statement and check whether the resulting statement is true:
There does not exist a quadrilateral which has all its sides equal.

For the statement: "If a quadrilateral $ABCD$ is a rhombus,then its opposite sides are parallel",its contrapositive and converse are respectively given by:

If the statement $p \vee \sim(q \wedge r)$ is false,then the truth values of $p, q$ and $r$ are respectively:

The statement $p \to (q \to p)$ is equivalent to

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